[Oct 20, 2023] Latest 220-1102 Exam with Accurate CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 PDF Questions
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CompTIA 220-1102 (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2) Certification Exam is a comprehensive assessment designed to validate the skills and knowledge of IT professionals regarding the installation, configuration, and troubleshooting of computer systems and networks. 220-1102 exam is the second part of the CompTIA A+ certification program and is intended for individuals who have completed the CompTIA 220-1001 (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1) Certification Exam.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A change advisory board just approved a change request. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in the change process?
- A. Communicate to stakeholders
- B. End user acceptance
- C. Perform risk analysis
- D. Sandbox testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The risk analysis should be performed before it's taken to the board. The step after the board approves the change is End User Agreenment Reference:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ru77iZxuElA&list=PLG49S3nxzAnna96gzhJrzkii4hH_mgW4b&index=59
NEW QUESTION # 179
A technician has been tasked with troubleshooting audiovisual issues in a conference room. The meeting presenters are unable to play a video with sound. The following error is received:
The Audio Driver is not running.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. regedit.exe
- B. explorer.exe
- C. compmgmt.msc
- D. taskmgt.exe
- E. gpmc.msc
- F. services.msc
Answer: F
Explanation:
Explanation
services.msc is a tool that can be used to resolve the issue of "The Audio Driver is not running" on a Windows machine. It allows a technician to view, start, stop and configure the services that run on the system, such as the Windows Audio service. compmgmt.msc, regedit.exe, explorer.exe, taskmgt.exe and gpmc.msc are other tools that can be used for different purposes on a Windows machine, but they are not related to audio drivers or services. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-services-msc
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 180
A SOHO client is having trouble navigating to a corporate website. Which of the following should a technician do to allow access?
- A. Reduce the encryption strength
- B. Adjust the content filtering.
- C. Unmap port forwarding.
- D. Disable unused ports.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Content filtering is a process that manages or screens access to specific emails or webpages based on their content categories1. Content filtering can be used by organizations to control content access through their firewalls and enforce corporate policies around information system management2. A SOHO client may have content filtering enabled on their network and may need to adjust it to allow access to a corporate website that is blocked by default. The client can use a software program, a hardware device, or a subscription service to configure the content filtering settings and whitelist the desired website2.
NEW QUESTION # 181
A technician is troubleshooting an issue with a computer that contains sensitive information. The technician determines the computer needs to be taken off site for repair. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A. Delete the sensitive information before the computer leaves the building.
- B. Check corporate polices for guidance.
- C. Get authorization from the manager.
- D. Remove the HDD and then send the computer for repair.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The next step that the technician should do before taking the computer off site for repair is to get authorization from the manager. Getting authorization from the manager is important because it ensures that the technician has permission and approval to remove the computer from the premises and perform the repair work off site.
Getting authorization from the manager can also help document and communicate the reason and duration of the repair and avoid any misunderstanding or conflict with the user or the organization. Removing the HDD and then sending the computer for repair may not be feasible or necessary if the issue is not related to the HDD or if the HDD contains essential data or software for the repair. Checking corporate policies for guidance may be a good step but it does not replace getting authorization from the manager who is responsible for the computer and its data. Deleting the sensitive information before the computer leaves the building may not be possible or advisable if the issue prevents access to the data or if the data is needed for troubleshooting or recovery purposes. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.1
NEW QUESTION # 182
Which of the following must be maintained throughout the forensic evidence life cycle when dealing with a piece of evidence?
- A. Information management
- B. Acceptable use
- C. Chain of custody
- D. Security policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 183
A systems administrator is monitoring an unusual amount of network traffic from a kiosk machine and needs to Investigate to determine the source of the traffic. Which of the following tools can the administrator use to view which processes on the kiosk machine are connecting to the internet?
- A. Performance Monitor
- B. Command Prompt
- C. System Information
- D. Resource Monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Resource Monitor is a tool that shows the network activity of each process on a Windows machine, including the TCP connections and the sent and received bytes. Performance Monitor is a tool that shows the performance metrics of the system, such as CPU, memory, disk and network usage. Command Prompt is a tool that allows running commands and scripts on a Windows machine. System Information is a tool that shows the hardware and software configuration of a Windows machine. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-use-resource-monitor https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 184
When a user calls in to report an issue, a technician submits a ticket on the user's behalf. Which of the following practices should the technician use to make sure the ticket is associated with the correct user?
- A. Register the ticket with a unique user identifier
- B. Assign the ticket to the department's power user
- C. Have the user provide a callback phone number to be added to the ticket
- D. Provide the user with a unique ticket number that can be referenced on subsequent calls.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 185
A technician has an external SSD. The technician needs to read and write to an external SSD on both Macs and Windows PCs. Which of the following filesystems is supported by both OS types?
- A. NTFS
- B. exFAT
- C. APFS
- D. ext4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The filesystem that is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs is D. exFAT. exFAT is a file system that is designed to be used on flash drives like USB sticks and SD cards. It is supported by both Macs and Windows PCs, and it can handle large files and volumes
https://www.diskpart.com/articles/file-system-for-mac-and-windows-0310.html
NEW QUESTION # 186
A technician is selling up a newly built computer. Which of the following is the FASTEST way for the technician to install Windows 10?
- A. Unattended installation
- B. System Restore
- C. In-place upgrade
- D. Factory reset
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An unattended installation is the fastest way to install Windows 10 on a newly built computer. It uses an answer file that contains all the configuration settings and preferences for the installation, such as language, product key, partition size, etc. It does not require any user interaction or input during the installation process.
Factory reset, System Restore and in-place upgrade are not methods of installing Windows 10 on a new computer, but ways of restoring or updating an existing Windows installation. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-an-unattended-installation https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 187
A change advisory board just approved a change request. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in the change process?
- A. Communicate to stakeholders
- B. End user acceptance
- C. Perform risk analysis
- D. Sandbox testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
The risk analysis should be performed before it's taken to the board. The step after the board approves the change is End User Agreenment Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ru77iZxuElA&list=PLG49S3nxzAnna96gzhJrzkii4hH_mgW4b&index=59
NEW QUESTION # 188
A user reports that a PC seems to be running more slowly than usual. A technician checks system resources, but disk, CPU, and memory usage seem to be fine. The technician sees that GPU temperature is extremely high. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely to blame?
- A. Ransormvare
- B. Spyware
- C. Boot sector virus
- D. Cryptominer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The type of malware that is most likely to blame for a PC running more slowly than usual and having an extremely high GPU temperature is a "cryptominer". Cryptominers are a type of malware that use the resources of a computer to mine cryptocurrency. This can cause the computer to run more slowly than usual and can cause the GPU temperature to rise. Spyware is a type of malware that is used to spy on a user's activities, but it does not typically cause high GPU temperatures. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts a user's files and demands payment to unlock them, but it does not typically cause high GPU temperatures. Boot sector viruses are a type of malware that infects the boot sector of a hard drive, but they do not typically cause high GPU temperatures12
NEW QUESTION # 189
A user contacts the help desk to request assistance with a program feature. The user is in a different building but on the same network as the help desk technician. Which of the following should the technician use to assist the user?
- A. SSH
- B. AAA
- C. RDP
- D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol and it is a protocol that allows a user to remotely access and control another computer over a network. A technician can use RDP to assist a user who is in a different building but on the same network by connecting to the user's computer and viewing their screen, keyboard, and mouse. AAA, SSH, and VPN are not protocols that can be used to assist a user with a program feature.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Ann, a CEO, has purchased a new consumer-class tablet for personal use, but she is unable to connect it to the company's wireless network. All the corporate laptops are connecting without issue. She has asked you to assist with getting the device online.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the network diagrams and device configurations to determine the cause of the problem and resolve any discovered issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below:
Explanation
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
Click on 802.11 and Select ac
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated Click on SSID and select CORP Graphical user interface, text, application, Teams Description automatically generated
Click on Frequency and select 5GHz
A picture containing background pattern Description automatically generated
At Wireless Security Mode, Click on Security Mode
Graphical user interface, text, application Description automatically generated
Select the WPA2
Graphical user interface, application, Teams Description automatically generated with medium confidence
Ann needs to connect to the BYOD SSID, using 2.4GHZ. The selected security method chose should be WPA PSK, and the password should be set to TotallySecret.
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 191
A department manager submits a help desk ticket to request the migration of a printer's port utilization from USB to Ethernet so multiple users can access the printer. This will be a new network printer; thus a new IP address allocation is required. Which of the following should happen immediately before network use is authorized?
- A. Submit a change request form.
- B. Determine the risk level of this change.
- C. Request an unused IP address.
- D. Document the date and time of the change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IP address is a unique identifier that allows a device to communicate with other devices on a network. A network printer needs an IP address to be accessible by multiple users on the network. Requesting an unused IP address from the network administrator or using an IP address scanner is the step that should happen immediately before network use is authorized, as it ensures that there is no IP address conflict or duplication on the network. Documenting the date and time of the change, submitting a change request form, and determining the risk level of this change are steps that should happen before requesting an unused IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following security methods supports the majority of current Wi-Fi-capable devices without sacrificing security?
- A. RADIUS
- B. WPA3
- C. TACACS+
- D. MAC filleting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is a wireless security method that supports the majority of current Wi-Fi-capable devices without sacrificing security. It is backward compatible with WPA2 devices and offers enhanced encryption and authentication features. MAC filtering is another wireless security method, but it can be easily bypassed by spoofing MAC addresses. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) and TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) are network authentication protocols, but they are not wireless security methods by themselves. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/wireless-security-standards https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 193
After clicking on a link in an email a Chief Financial Officer (CFO) received the following error:
The CFO then reported the incident to a technician. The link is purportedly to the organization's bank. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?
- A. Update the browser's CRLs
- B. Contact the ISP to report the CFCs concern
- C. Instruct the CFO to exit the browser
- D. File a trouble ticket with the bank.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which of the following would most likely be used in a small office environment?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Print server
- C. Workgroup
- D. Domain access
Answer: C
Explanation:
A workgroup is a network configuration that allows computers to communicate and share resources with each other without requiring a centralized server or domain controller. A workgroup is suitable for small office environments where there are only a few computers and users who need simple file and printer sharing. A workgroup does not have centralized management or security policies, which may be desirable for larger or more complex networks. Print server, virtualization, and domain access are not network configurations that are most likely used in a small office environment.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following features allows a technician to configure policies in a Windows 10 Professional desktop?
- A. gpresult
- B. gpedit
- C. gpupdate
- D. gpmc
Answer: B
Explanation:
The feature that allows a technician to configure policies in a Windows 10 Professional desktop is gpedit. Gpedit is a command that opens the Local Group Policy Editor, which is a utility that allows users to view and modify local group policies on their Windows PC. Local group policies are a set of rules and settings that control the behavior and configuration of the system and its users. Local group policies can be used to configure policies such as security, network, software installation and user rights. Gpmc is a command that opens the Group Policy Management Console, which is a utility that allows users to view and modify domain-based group policies on a Windows Server. Domain-based group policies are a set of rules and settings that control the behavior and configuration of the computers and users in a domain. Domain-based group policies are not available on a Windows 10 Professional desktop. Gpresult is a command that displays the result of applying group policies on a Windows PC. Gpresult can be used to troubleshoot or verify group policy settings but not to configure them. Gpupdate is a command that updates or refreshes the group policy settings on a Windows PC. Gpupdate can be used to apply new or changed group policy settings but not to configure them. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.6
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective version of Windows 10 that allows remote access through Remote Desktop?
- A. Pro
- B. Home
- C. Pro for Workstations
- D. Enterprise
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most cost-effective version of Windows 10 that allows remote access through Remote Desktop is Windows 10 Pro. Windows 10 Pro includes Remote Desktop, which allows users to connect to a remote computer and access its desktop, files, and applications. Windows 10 Home does not include Remote Desktop, while Windows 10 Pro for Workstations and Windows 10 Enterprise are more expensive versions of Windows
10 that include additional features for businesses
NEW QUESTION # 197
A company recently experienced a security incident in which a USB drive containing malicious software was able to covertly install malware on a workstation_ Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent this Incident from happening again? (Select two).
- A. Restrict user permissions.
- B. Enable a BIOS password
- C. Install a host-based IDS
- D. Update the password complexity
- E. Restrict log-in times.
- F. Disable AutoRun.
- G. Update the antivirus definitions.
Answer: F,G
Explanation:
The correct answers are E and ,. Disabling AutoRun and updating the antivirus definitions are two actions that should be taken to prevent the incident from happening again.
AutoRun is a feature of Windows that automatically executes a predetermined action when a removable media such as a USB drive is inserted in a computer. For example, AutoRun can launch or install a new program on the media, or open the file in File Explorer. However, this feature can also be exploited by malicious software that can run without the user's consent or knowledge. Therefore, disabling AutoRun can help prevent accidental installation of viruses and other malware from USB drives123.
Updating the antivirus definitions is another important action that can help prevent malware infections from USB drives. Antivirus definitions are files that contain information about the latest known threats and how to detect and remove them. By updating the antivirus definitions regularly, you can ensure that your antivirus software can recognize and block any malicious software that may be on the USB drive before it can harm your computer45.
A host-based IDS is a system that monitors and analyzes the activity on a single computer or device for any signs of intrusion or malicious behavior. A host-based IDS can help detect and prevent malware infections from USB drives, but it is not a sufficient action by itself. A host-based IDS needs to be complemented by other security measures, such as disabling AutoRun and updating the antivirus definitions6.
Restricting login times, enabling a BIOS password, and updating the password complexity are all actions that can help improve the security of a computer or device, but they are not directly related to preventing malware infections from USB drives. These actions can help prevent unauthorized access to the computer or device, but they do not affect how the computer or device interacts with the USB drive or its contents.
Restricting user permissions is an action that can help limit the damage that malware can cause on a computer or device, but it does not prevent the malware from being installed in the first place. Restricting user permissions means limiting what actions a user can perform on the computer or device, such as installing or deleting programs, modifying system settings, or accessing certain files or folders. By restricting user permissions, you can reduce the impact of malware infections by preventing them from affecting other users or system components7.
NEW QUESTION # 198
A field technician applied a Group Policy setting to all the workstations in the network. This setting forced the workstations to use a specific SNTP server. Users are unable to log in now. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
- A. The SNTP server is offline.
- B. The workstations and the authentication server have a system clock difference.
- C. A user changed the time zone on a local machine.
- D. The Group Policy setting has disrupted domain authentication on the system,
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The workstations and the authentication server have a system clock difference. If a Group Policy setting is applied that forces the workstations to use a specific SNTP server, but the system clock on the workstations and the authentication server are out of sync, then this can cause authentication issues and users will be unable to log in. In this case, the most likely cause of the issue is a difference in system clocks and the technician should ensure that the clocks on the workstations and the authentication server are in sync.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A department manager submits a help desk ticket to request the migration of a printer's port utilization from USB to Ethernet so multiple users can access the printer. This will be a new network printer; thus a new IP address allocation is required. Which of the following should happen immediately before network use is authorized?
- A. Submit a change request form.
- B. Determine the risk level of this change.
- C. Request an unused IP address.
- D. Document the date and time of the change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An IP address is a unique identifier that allows a device to communicate with other devices on a network. A network printer needs an IP address to be accessible by multiple users on the network. Requesting an unused IP address from the network administrator or using an IP address scanner is the step that should happen immediately before network use is authorized, as it ensures that there is no IP address conflict or duplication on the network. Documenting the date and time of the change, submitting a change request form, and determining the risk level of this change are steps that should happen before requesting an unused IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which of the following file types would be used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a personal storage table (.pst file) to a network drive at log-in?
- A. .ps1
- B. .bat
- C. .txt
- D. .dll
Answer: B
Explanation:
The .bat file type would be used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a personal storage table (.pst) file to a network drive at log-in. A .bat file is a batch file that contains a series of commands that can be executed by the command interpreter. A .bat file can be used to perform various tasks, such as copying, moving, deleting, or renaming files or directories. A .bat file can be placed in the Windows Startup folder to run automatically when a user logs in to the system. A .bat file can use the copy command to copy a .pst file from a local drive to a network drive. A .pst file is a personal storage table file that contains email messages, contacts, calendars, and other data from Microsoft Outlook. A .pst file can be backed up to a network drive for security or recovery purposes. The .dll, .ps1, and .txt file types are not used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a .pst file to a network drive at log-in. A .dll file is a dynamic link library file that contains code or data that can be shared by multiple programs. A .dll file cannot be executed directly by the user or the system. A .ps1 file is a PowerShell script file that contains commands or expressions that can be executed by the PowerShell interpreter. A .ps1 file can also perform various tasks, such as copying files or directories, but it requires PowerShell to be installed and configured on the system. A .txt file is a plain text file that contains unformatted text that can be read by any text editor or word processor. A .txt file cannot contain commands or expressions that can be executed by the system. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 459
NEW QUESTION # 201
A technician is setting up a SOHO wireless router. The router is about ten years old. The customer would like the most secure wireless network possible. Which of the following should the technician configure?
- A. WPA2withAES
- B. WPA3withAES-256
- C. WPA2 with TKIP
- D. WPA3 with AES-128
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 202
A user is unable to access files on a work PC after opening a text document. The text document was labeled
"URGENT PLEASE READ.txt - In active folder, .txt file titled urgent please read". Which of the following should a support technician do FIRST?
- A. Investigate how malicious software was Installed.
- B. Quarantine the host in the antivirus system.
- C. Reimage the computer.
- D. Run antivirus scan tor malicious software.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Running an antivirus scan for malicious software is the first step that a support technician should do when a user reports a virus on a PC. The antivirus scan can detect and remove the virus, as well as prevent further damage or infection. Quarantining the host, investigating how the malware was installed and reimaging the computer are possible steps that can be done after running the antivirus scan, depending on the situation and the results of the scan. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-remove-a-virus
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 203
......
CompTIA A+ certification is an entry-level certification for IT professionals seeking to start their career in the IT industry. It is also a great way for experienced professionals to validate their skills and knowledge. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification is recognized globally and is highly regarded by employers. It demonstrates that the individual has the necessary skills to perform IT tasks efficiently and effectively.
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